LOCOMOTION
1. PRACTICE SET-1
\section{Conceptual Questions}
Q.1 Gout is a disease that affects the joints and leads to arthritis. It is associated with an abnormality of
(1) Pyrimidine metabolism
(2) Purine metabolism
(3) Fat metabolism
(4) Protein metabolism
Q.2 Bones become fragile in
(1) Arthritis
(2) Gout
(3) Osteoporosis
(4) Bursitis
Ans. 1. (2), 2. (3) Q.1 Type of movement shown by Paramoecium is
(1) Amoeboid
(2) Ciliary
(3) Flagellar
(4) Muscular
Q.2 Which of the following can be taken as a character of skeletal muscle fibre?
(1) Excitability
(2) Extensibility
(3) Contractibility
(4) All of these
Q.3 Each fasciculus of skeletal muscle fibre is surrounded by
(1) Epimycium
(2) Perimycium
(3) Endomycium
(4) Sarcolemma
Q.4 Select the true statement
(1) A band is present in the middle of sarcomere
(2) \(\mathrm{H}\) zone is present in the middle of \(\mathrm{A}\) - band
(3) M line is present in the middle of \(\mathrm{H}\) - zone
(4) All of these
Q.5 One myosin filament in the myofibril of skeletal muscle fibre is surrounded by how many actin filaments?
(1) Too
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Eight
Q.6 Functional unit of a muscle fibre is
(1) Thick filament
(2) Sarcomere
(3) Thin filament
(4) Myofibrils
Q.7 Which of the following is the regulatory muscle protein having double chain structure?
(1) Troponin
(2) Actin
(3) Myosin
(4) Tropomyosin
Q.8 During muscle contraction in a skeletal muscle fibre, \(\mathrm{Ca}^{2+}\) combine with
(1) \(T_{\mathrm{p}} \mathrm{T}\)
(2) \(\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{p}} \mathrm{C}\)
(3) \(T_{p} 1\)
(4) Tropomyosin
Q.9 A specific minimum strength of nerve impulse of some artificial stimulus required for exciting a muscle fibre to contract is called
(1) All or none rule
(2) Tetanus
(3) Threshold stimulus
(4) Fatigue
Q.10 Time taken by a single muscle twitch is
(1) 1 second
(2) 0.1 second
(3) 10 seconds
(4) 2 seconds
Q.11 The contraction of muscle of shortest duration is seen in
(1) Jaws
(2) Eye lids
(3) Heart
(4) Intestine
Q.12 The time period between the beginning of electrical response and peak of tension recorded is
(1) Contraction time
(2) Latent period
(3) Refractory period (4) Relaxation time
Q.13 The muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of
(1) \(\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
(3) Creatine phosphate
(2) Lactic acid
(4) Myosin ATPase
Q.14 In a contracted skeletal muscle fibre
(1) M line disappears
(2) \(\mathrm{H} \cdot z\) zone elongates
(3) I-band remains constant
(4) A-band disappears Q.15 One of the following ions is essential for muscular contraction
(1) \(\mathrm{Na}^{+}, \mathrm{Ca}^{++}\)
(2) \(\mathrm{Mg}^{++}, \mathrm{Ca}^{++}\)
(3) \(\mathrm{Mg}^{++}, \mathrm{K}^{+}\)
(4) \(\mathrm{K}^{+}, \mathrm{Na}^{+}\)
Q.16 The potential difference across the membrane of a relaxed muscle fibre is called resting potential. II amounts to about
(1) \(-70 \mathrm{mV}\)
(2) \(50 \mathrm{mV}\)
(3) \(100 \mathrm{mV}\)
(4) \(50-100 \mathrm{mV}\)
Q.17 The longest individual muscle in the human body is
(1) Quadriceps femoris
(2) Gluteus maximus
(3) Sartorius
(4) Latissimus dorsi
Q.18 In one of the following functions white muscles are not used
(1) Moving of eye balls
(2) Fast and strenuous work for short duration
(3) For sustained work at a slow rate for a prolonged duration
(4) Fast flights as in sparrows
Q.19 Coricycle involves
(1) Liver
(2) Muscles
(3) Liver and muscles both
(4) None of these
Q.20 Which one of the following is a viral disease that weakens the muscles?
(1) Atrophy
(2) Poliomyelitis
(3) Dystrophy
(4) Muscular hypertrophy
Q.21 To one of the lateral surtace of humerus a muscle is attached called
(1) Biceps brachii
(2) Oeltoidius
(3) Sartoius
(4) Messeter
Q.22 In birds which flight muscle is well developed?
(1) Atary
(2) Biceps
(3) Gastrocnemius
(4) Pectoralis major
Q.23 The backward bending of the shank is worked out by
(1) Gluteus maximus
(2) Quadriceps femoris muscles
(3) Adductor group of muscles
(4) Gastrocnemius and hamstrings
Q.24 The longest visceral muscles are found in
(1) Vas deferens
(2) Normal uterus
(3) Pregnant uterus
(4) Abdomen
Q.25 Which one is not the character of red skeletal muscle?
(1) Smaller diameter
(2) More mitochondria
(3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) More blood capillaries
Q.26 Which of the following is an example of multiunit smooth muscles?
(1) Smooth muscle with the blood vessels
(2) Smooth muscle with the intestine
(3) Masseter muscle of the jaw
(4) Arrector pili muscle of skin
Q.27 Least blood supply will be present in case of
(1) Skeletal muscle
(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) None of these Q.28 The part of skull that includes the cranium, the olfactory capsules and the optic capsules is known as
(1) Splanchnocranium(2) Dermocranium
(3) Neurocranium
(4) Cranium
Q.29 Only movable bone in skull is
(1) Mandible
(2) Vomer
(3) Maxilla
(4) Palatine
Q.30 Which one of the following is the bone enclosing the tympanum in mammals?
(1) Tympanic membrane
(2) Tympanic bulla
(3) Masloid
(4) Periotic and tympanic bulla
Q.31 Sella turcica, a depression enclosing the pituitary gland is found in
(1) Temporal bone
(2) Parietal bone
(3) Sphenoid bone
(4) Frontal bone
Q.32 Number of unpaired bones in the cranium is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 1
Q.33 Foramen magnum is associated with which bone?
(1) Frontal
(2) Parietal
(3) Temporal
(4) Occipital
Q.34 Tongue bone is
(1) Mandible
(2) Hyoid
(3) Flal bone
(4) Coccyx
Q.35 Odontoid process is present with which vertebrae of vertebral column?
(1) Atlas vertebrae
(2) Axis vertebrae
(3) Vertebrae prominens
(4) Lumbar vertebrae
Q.36 Number of anterior curves present with human vertebral column is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 1
Q.37 Total number of movable vertebrae in our body are
(1) 26
(2) 24
(3) 31
(4) 30
Q.38 Vertebra prominens is present with
(1) 1 st thoracic vertebrae
(2) 1 st lumbar vertebrae
(3) 7 th cervical vertebrae
(4) 1 st cervical vertebrae
Q.39 Cervical vertebrae can be identified from other vertebrae on the basis of
(1) Odontoid processes
(2) Transverse processes
(3) Amphiplatyan centrum
(4) Vertebra-arterial canals
Q.40 The heaviest and largest vertebrae are
(1) Thoracic
(2) Lumbar
(3) Cervical
(4) Sacral
Q.41 Typical thoracic vertebrae are
(1) 12
(2) \(1,9,10,11,12\)
(3) \(1,2,7\)
(4) 2 to 8 Q.42 In birds, the vertebrae in the neck region are
(1) Amphiplatyan
(2) Heterocoelous
(3) Opisthocoelous
(4) Amphicoelous
Q.43 Centrum of a vertebra which is concave on both the sides is called as
(1) Amphicoelous
(2) Opisthocoelous
(3) Acoelous
(4) Procoelaus
Q.44 Type of vertebrae in case of human is
(1) Amphiplatyan
(2) Procoelus
(3) Amphicoelus
(4) Heterocoelus
Q.45 How many vertebra-chondral ribs are present in the human?
(1) 7 pairs
(2) 2 pairs
(3) 3 pairs
(4) 12 pairs
Q.46 The number of floating ribs are
(1) 2 pairs
(2) 12 pairs
(3) 7 pairs
(4) 3 pairs
Q.47 Glenoid cavity is associated with
(1) Pelvic girdle
(2) Coracoid
(3) Clavicle
(4) Scapula
Q.48 Deltoid ridge is found in which one of the following bones?
(1) Radius
(2) Tibia
(3) Femur
(4) Humerus
Q.49 Olecranon fossa is present with
(1) Radius
(2) Ulna
(3) Humerus
(4) Femur
Q.50 The sigmoid notch is present in
(1) Femur
(2) Tibio-fibula
(3) Humerus
(4) Radius-ulna
Q.51 Mark the odd one out
(1) Scaphoid
(2) Lunate
(3) Pisiform
(4) Calcaneum
Q.52 Phalangeal formula for the hand is
(1) 23333
(2) 33333
(3) 33322
(4) 32333
Q.53 When we move the palm in upward direction by the action of supinator muscle the position of ulna is
(1) Towards thumb side
(2) Towards little finger
(3) Towards thumb side in right hand only
(4) Towards little finger in left hand only
Q.54 One of the following is called hip bone
(1) Innominate
(2) Scapula
(3) Manubrium
(4) Coracoid
Q.55 Obturator foramen is enclosed between
(1) Ilium, ischium and pubis
(2) Ischium and pubis
(3) Ilium and ischium
(4) Ilium and pubis
Q.56 Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?
a. Ilium
b. Ischium
c. Pubis
(1) a \& b only
(2) b \& c only
(3) a \& c only
(4) \(a, b \& c\)
Q.57 Saddle joint is present between
(1) Radius and ulna
(2) Carpals
(3) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(4) Ulna and humerus Q.58 Hinge joint is present between
(1) Humerus and Radio-ulna
(2) Femur and Pelvic girdle
(3) Femur and Acetabulum
(4) Humerus and Pectoral girdle
Q.59 Which of the following movements in mammalian skeleton represent the leverage of the third order (force applied at a paint between fulcrum and the point of resistance)?
(1) Biceps muscle flexing arm at elbow
(2) Triceps muscle extending arm at elbow
(3) Gastrocnemius muscle raising weight of body on toes
(4) Movement of the head of femur in the acetabulum of pelvic girdle
Q.60 Which of the following abnormality will include the secretion of abnormal granules - pannus?
(1) Osteoarthritis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Gout
(4) Osteoporosis
Q.61 The cells responsible for the resorption of bone matrix during the growth and remodelling of the skeleton are called
(1) Osteoblasts
(2) Osteoclasts
(3) Chondroblasts
(4) Chondroclasts
Q.62 Find the odd one out
(1) Humerus, thigh, tibia and fibula, radius and ulna
(2) Metacarpals and metatarsals, phalanges of fingers and loes
(3) Scapula of shoulder bone, sternum, cranial bones, vertebrae
(4) Carpals of wrist and tarsals of ankle
Q.63 Find the odd one out
(1) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis
(2) Deltoid ridge, Olecranon process, Trochanter
(3) Suprascapula, Coracoid, Scapula, Trochlea
(4) Epiphysis, Xiphisternum, Olecranon notch
Q.64 When a bone breaks into more than two pieces, such a fracture is called
(1) Simple fracture
(2) Green stick fracture
(3) Comminuted fracture
(4) Compound fracture
Q.65 Bone formed by the ossification of tendon is called as
(1) Sesamoid
(2) Cartilage or replacing bone
(3) Investing or dermal bone
(4) Membranous bone